Monday, April 02, 2007

A Study on the Definite Atonement of Christ.

I received a story about a teacher who wanted to get the message of Christ’s death across to his students, who seemed disinterested.  He offered then each a donut, but had a student with perfect grades, do 10 push-ups for each one, whether or not they wanted the donut.  It paralleled the free offer of the gospel, Christ dying for everyone, whether they accepted it or not.  This is a flawed view of the substitutionary atonement.  So, here is a short Bible study on the atonement. 


  Question: Did Jesus Christ die for all men equally alike or for only the elect?   John 3:16 What is the meaning of the word "world": In the scripture we find several applications of this word.1. orderly universe 2. the earth itself 3. the human inhabitants of earth 4. mankind under the Creator’s judgment, alienated from His life 5. Public around Christ, Jews in particular - John 12:19 6. the kingdom of evil forces, angelic as well as human 7. men out of every tribe and nation, but not all tribes and nations as a whole. Some would say that logically this is all mankind because a belief in post-destination - God chooses after man’s work. But this is a Justification by works and not by Grace! Eph 2:1-9 I believe that it is more consistent with Scripture and logical, to be men of every tribe and nation, but not all as whole. Because of the conviction that scripture teaches God choosing according to His purpose without any conditions on part of man. ie. God is sovereign, His plan is immutable (unchangeable) in choosing those He freely willed to make objects of His grace. Rom 3:24 If this is not true then we have a problem: Is God’s will foiled by man if this is a universal atonement? If so, then God cannot be omnipotent...not sovereign...not God!

2 Pet. 3:9 "The Lord is...not willing that any should perish!" Folks love this verse because it shows the mercy of God. But, 1. Who is Peter writing to? 2 Pet 1:1 - those whose faith rests upon the righteousness of God and not on a condition of righteousness in themselves.—Believers, same in beginning of ch. 3. 2. What is the context of 3:9? 1 Peter 3:4 & 9 use the word "Us" referring to those who hold the promise of His coming. 3. Why is He longsuffering regarding His promise coming? - He is not willing that any of US should perish. (See 2 Cor 5:21; Rom 5:8)

Limited or Definite So, is the atonement limited or definite? Consider - Eph. 5:25 (Christ gave Himself for the Church, not everybody); Rom. 8:32-33 - again, who did he give himself for? We are not chosen because we are holy and blameless, but in order that we will be, holy and blameless, in Christ - Eph. 1:4 If is the ‘brethren" (believers) that are the specific objects of God’s love...Gal 1:3-5; 1 Pet 2:9—again, read these in their context. Consider, who did the angel tell Joseph that Jesus would save? Matt 1:21 Jesus is very clear about who is saved as indicated by who hears the voice of the Shepherd ... it is the sheep - John 10:14,15, 27, 29 He lays down His life only for the sheep not for those who aren’t sheep - John 10:46 And then, it is very instructive, that in the night before Jesus was betrayed (this week) He prays for only those that the Father has given him- John 17:9 and this takes us back to John 6:44. Perhaps you remember being corrected when you were young and asked for something, you said, "Can I have ...?" and were corrected with, "May I have...!", because the issue was not your ability, but to get permission. In John 6:44, the issue is "ability", no one has the "ability" to come to Christ, unless the Father draws him.

Our Security is in Christ Our security is not in our ability to "choose" Christ or the "donut" as in the story above, but in Christ choosing us. Jesus didn’t die to make salvation a possibility for all, but a reality for his own by dying in their place. The question, "For whom did Christ die?" is answered by understanding the purpose of Christ’s death. Christ died to actually save his own. The only safety for you is to belong to Christ and be hidden in him from God’s wrath and judgment (Romans 8:1, 29, 30). Romans 3 says that nobody seeks God! In chapter 5: "But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us...For if while we were enemies, we were reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved in His Life." John writes: "In this is love, not that we loved God, but that He loved us and sent His Son to be the propitiation for our sins." 1 John 4:10. So the real issue or question is, "Do we belong to Christ?"

Posted by bonita on 04/02 at 12:53 PM
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